Here is a strange hypothesis.
Reading through the Wife of Bath’s Prologue again gave me an idea; I’m not sure
it’s a good one but here it is. One of the questions we discussed in class was
whether the Wife of Bath was supposed to be sympathetic or not. Perhaps the
question beneath that is: is the Wife (I’m going to call her that through the
rest of this. It’s easier) presented as herald of positive change in women’s
role or is she the model for women of what not to do and for men who not to
marry? I’ll argue it’s neither. What if her presence on the pilgrimage and her extraordinarily
long prologue are not comments on women’s behavior at all, but rather on men’s?
Let me explain a little.
The
prologue opens in the middle of an apologetic discussion. The Wife is making a
case for her situation and beliefs, pulling from the Bible and classical literature,
yet it seems that these bits are given a rather lose interpretation or are half
quoted. Not being an expert on Ptolemy,
I’ll stick to the arguments she relies on the Bible for. I could probably go on
and on about almost every reference she makes to the Bible but I want to focus
on a particular passage that caught my eye. Speaking of her husband (I don’t
know which one particularly), the Wife pulls out a pair of ideas one from
Corinthians and the other from Ephesians:
I have the power during
al my lif
Upon his proper body, and
nat he.
Right thus th’ Apostle
tolde it unto me,
And bad oure housbonds
for to love us wel;
Al this sentice me liketh
everydel.’ (159-162).
It is interesting that she ends the statement with
“Al this sentice me liketh everydel.” She is implying that she has considered
the whole statement and likes every bit of it. According to her she this is a
solid basis for her argument. That however is literally half the story. I think
it is safe to assume that many if not most of her audience would be familiar
with the passages she is referring to. I can’t read Latin and nor do I have the
Bible in middle English (which of course she probably didn’t have either) but
here are the passages from the New King James Version which I think is close
enough for my purposes:
1
Corinthians 7:4 “The wife does not have authority over her body, but the husband
does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but
the wife does.”
Ephesians
5:22,25 “Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord…. Husbands, love
your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and game himself for her.”
The Wife of Bath has pulled exactly half of these
passages for her argument, which is what she wanted and nothing more. Her argument
is based on what she wants her argument to be. From there she can find support for
it because she wants it to be there. I could go on about this but I wondered:
how often was the other half, and just the other half, used in medieval society?
I’m no expert but what I remember from class discussions and a little of my own
digging was that the women was very nearly the property of her husband in
medieval society. No doubt our society emphasis the negatives disproportionately
with the reality but there is also no doubt (correct me if I’m wrong Dr. M-B) that
Medieval English law favored the man more than the women in most regards.
Sorry
I’ve been going on for a while now, don’t worry I’m almost done. Right before
we learn that the Wife’s arguments (at least in this instance) are based on
only what she wanted she uses what I thought rather severe words to describe
the position of her husband to her; “Which shal be bothe my dettour and my
thral” (155). Once I got past the strength of these descriptions (he shall be
her debtor and slave) I realized a similarity with something Custaunce said in
The Man of Law’s Tale. She said, “Wommen are born to thralldom and penaunce”
(Man of Law’s Tale 286). The similarity is striking. Both contain “thrall” or “thralldom”
and both contain ideas of debt or “penaunce,” which is paying for some wrong
doing or debt. It seems then that the
Wife seeks to place men where men place women. All this to say that it seems
that the Wife of Bath has been painted like this to point out the extreme
lopsidedness that men assume with the same flawed logic. I think that as she
repulses her audience they cannot but realize she has exactly the same basis
for what she does as they do. The only difference is that she uses the other
half of the whole.
I
apologize for making this so long. A applaud your patience for making it this
far. Now you know why I only brought up part of it in class.
I enjoyed reading your post, Andrew-- no need to apologize. I believe you are right: the Wife is giving an argument based on a limited portion of scripture. One of the three major keys of Biblical analysis in a few Protestant seminaries is "Scripture interprets scripture." One cannot pull out a Bible verse out of context to make a desired point (although it's done all the time). I wonder if there is a connection between the Wife's convenient narrow understanding and her assertion that it is because of friars that all the faeries left England...
ReplyDeleteI also found this particular argument interesting. Individuals, even today, have a bad habit of pulling just what they need out of something to prove their own point. When it comes to relating this to the Wife's tale, the discussion might become more interesting. How does your argument coincide with the Wife's tale? Do you think she is arguing for how men should act? Diane points out that the knight is guilty of rape, yet he finds redemption in his own punishment. In fact, as Diane pointed out, he is rewarded. This will make for interesting class discussion today.
ReplyDeleteAlright... Let's see if I can actually post this comment. (I've accidentally deleted two comments by hitting the backspace button before posting. Arg!)
ReplyDeleteSo, what if Chaucer via the Wife is making an argument for more balance in a relationship? Could it be that after the courtly love seen in the Knight's tale, and the purity of Custaunce that was deemed so attractive, that the Wife's story of making the husband "enthralled" could be a request or argument for both parties in the marriage to become the person who is deeply indebted or ruled by the other. This way, there will be less of a woman needing to be "perfectly pure" as Custaunce, and less on a pedestal than Alison, and a partnership could develop between the husband and wife. This way, it's not about the man ruling with an iron fist, or loving from afar, but someone who will be involved and engaged, and who is able to understand what a woman really wants, while she will then give back and will not be forced to do things she disagrees with.
Also, this is what I think of when I read this tale:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8fJoPI-xytM